Did the ancestors of current day Pakistanis convert to Islam because of Islamic force/oppression or to escape caste inequality? Is there any study that gives the % split?
I got this comment from a Pakistani sub and it made me wonder how much of it is true. Though it does seem like a coping mechanism to hide the Islamic brutality, the caste based discrimination is a legitimate issue for the dalits.
I got this comment from a Pakistani sub and it made me wonder how much of it is true. Though it does seem like a coping mechanism to hide the Islamic brutality, the caste based discrimination is a legitimate issue for the dalits.